Romans - 3:29



29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Isn't he the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also,

Verse In-Depth

Explanation and meaning of Romans 3:29.

Differing Translations

Compare verses for better understanding.
Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
Is God the God of Jews only? is he not of the nations also? Yea, of nations also:
The God of Jews only is He, and not also of nations?
Is God simply the God of the Jews, and not of the Gentiles also? He is certainly the God of the Gentiles also,
Or is God the God of Jews only? is he not in the same way the God of Gentiles? Yes, of Gentiles:
Is God of the Jews only and not also of the Gentiles? On the contrary, of the Gentiles also.
Or can it be that God is the God only of the Jews? Isn't he also the God of the Gentiles?
Num Iudæorum Deus tantum? an non et Gentium? certe et Gentium.

*Minor differences ignored. Grouped by changes, with first version listed as example.


Historical Commentaries

Scholarly Analysis and Interpretation.

Is he the God of the Jews only? The second proposition is, that this righteousness belongs no more to the Jews than to the Gentiles: and it was a great matter that this point should be urged, in order that a free passage might be made for the kingdom of Christ through the whole world. He does not then ask simply or expressly, whether God was the Creator of the Gentiles, which was admitted without any dispute; but whether he designed to manifest himself as a Savior also to them. As he had put all mankind on a level, and brought them to the same condition, if there be any difference between them, it is from God, not from themselves, who have all things alike: but if it be true that God designs to make all the nations of the earth partakers of his mercy, then salvation, and righteousness, which is necessary for salvation, must be extended to all. Hence under the name, God, is conveyed an intimation of a mutual relationship, which is often mentioned in Scripture, -- "I shall be to you a God, and you shall be to me a people." (Jeremiah 30:22.) For the circumstance, that God, for a time, chose for himself a peculiar people, did not make void the origin of mankind, who were all formed after the image of God, and were to be brought up in the world in the hope of a blessed eternity.

Is he the God - The Jews supposed that he was the God of their nation only, that they only were to be admitted to his favor. In these verses Paul showed that as all had alike sinned, Jews and Gentiles; and as the plan of salvation by faith was adapted to sinners, without any special reference to Jews; so God could show favors to all, and all might be admitted on the same terms to the benefits of the plan of salvation.
It is one God - The same God, there is but one, and his plan is equally suited to Jews and Gentiles.
The circumcision - Those who are circumcised - the Jews.
The uncircumcision - Gentiles; all who were not Jews.
By faiththrough faith - There is no difference in the meaning of these expressions. Both denote that faith is the instrumental cause of justification, or acceptance with God.

Is he the God of the Jews only? - Do not begin to suppose that because you cannot be justified by the works of the law and God has in his mercy found out a new method of saving you, that therefore this mercy shall apply to the Jews exclusively. Is not God the maker, preserver, and redeemer, also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also, as much as of the Jews; for all have equally sinned and there is no reason, if God be disposed to show mercy at all, that he should prefer the one to the other; since they are all equally guilty, sinful, and necessitous.

(12) [Is he] the God of the (f) Jews only? [is he] not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
(12) Another absurd argument: if justification depended upon the law of Moses, then God would be a Saviour to the Jews only. Again, if he would save the Jews after one manner, and the Gentiles after another, he would not be consistent. Therefore he will justify both of them after the very same manner, that is to say, by faith. Moreover, this argument must be joined to that which follows next, so that his conclusion may be firm and evident.
(f) God is said to be their God, after the manner of the scripture, whom he loves and cares for.

Is he the God of the Jews only?.... The Jews made their boast of him as such, and would not allow the Gentiles any interest in him: but
is he not also of the Gentiles? yes, of the Gentiles also: God is the God both of Jews and Gentiles; not only as the Creator, preserver, and Governor of them, or as he has a right to demand worship and service of them, but as he is their covenant God; not by virtue of the covenant of circumcision, or by the Sinai Covenant, but by the covenant of grace; as appears by his loving them in Christ, choosing them in him, putting them into his hands, providing blessings of grace for them in him, and sending his Son to redeem them; by calling them by his grace; by their sanctification, adoption, pardon, and justification; by taking out of them a people for his name with whom he dwells, and of whom he takes care; and will never leave nor forsake: all which may lead us to observe the distinguishing grace of God, the happiness of our state and condition, and what encouragement we have for faith and hope in God.

Is he the God of the Jews only? &c.--The way of salvation must be one equally suited to the whole family of fallen man: but the doctrine of justification by faith is the only one that lays the basis of a Universal Religion; this therefore is another mark of its truth.

Surely of the gentiles also - As both nature and the scriptures show.

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