37 Therefore David himself calls him Lord, so how can he be his son?" The common people heard him gladly.
*Minor differences ignored. Grouped by changes, with first version listed as example.
The common people heard him gladly - The success of the Saviour in his preaching was chiefly among the common or the poorer class of people. The rich and the mighty were too proud to listen to his instructions. So it is still. The main success of the gospel is there, and there it pours down its chief blessings. This is not the fault of "the gospel." It would bless the rich and the mighty as well as the poor, if they came with like humble hearts. God knows no distinctions of men in conferring his favors; and wherever there is a poor, contrite, and humble spirit - be it clothed in rags or in purple - be it on a throne or on a dunghill - there he confers the blessings of salvation.
The common people heard him gladly - And were doubtless many of them brought to believe and receive the truth. By the comparatively poor the Gospel is still best received.
David therefore himself calleth him Lord,.... David, whose son you say the Messiah is, speaks of him as one superior to himself; as Lord, and as his Lord:
whence is he then his son? from what passage of Scripture does it appear, that he is his son? and how can these two different characters of him, be made to agree in him? Our Lord meant by this, to observe to them, that the Messiah was God, as well as man; that he was not merely the son of David, as was commonly received, or a mere man, but that he had a superior nature, in which he was David's Lord, and even Lord of all. This is a Talmudic way of speaking, frequently used when a proof from Scripture, or reason, is demanded to support any opinion or article of faith; as, , "from whence is this opinion" (z)? what proof is there of it? And again it is said (a), , "from whence" is the proof of the resurrection of the dead out of the law? It is said, Exodus 6:4, "and I have also established", &c. Sometimes it is expressed thus (b), , "from whence do we know that it is so?" And sometimes the word is doubled (c); says, R. Simeon ben Lekish, there is an intimation out of the law, concerning that which is torn, , "from whence? from whence?" Exodus 22:31, "Neither shall ye eat any flesh that is torn", &c. But the Scribes produced neither Scripture nor reason to support their assertion, though it was true; because they could not reconcile it with the passage cited by Christ.
And the common people; or the "whole multitude", as the Syriac and Persic versions render it; or a "great multitude", as the Vulgate Latin, and Arabic versions; or "all the people", as the Ethiopic; all but the Scribes and Pharisees, the populace in general,
heard him gladly; with great pleasure and satisfaction, observing that his doctrine was superior to that of any of the sects among them; particularly his reasoning about the Messiah, was listened to with great attention, and who, no doubt, could gladly have heard how these things could be reconciled; but we read not that any answer was returned to our Lord's queries, either by himself or any other.
(z) T. Bab. Yebamot, fol. 54. 2. (a) T. Bab. Sanhedrin, fol. 90. 2. (b) T. Bab. Nazir, fol. 5. 1. (c) T. Bab. Cholin, fol. 42. 1.
David therefore himself calleth him Lord; and whence is he then his son?--There is but one solution of this difficulty. Messiah is at once inferior to David as his son according to the flesh, and superior to him as the Lord of a kingdom of which David is himself a subject, not the sovereign. The human and divine natures of Christ, and the spirituality of His kingdom--of which the highest earthly sovereigns are honored if they be counted worthy to be its subjects--furnish the only key to this puzzle.
And the common people--the immense crowd.
heard him gladly--"And no man was able to answer Him a word; neither durst any man from that day forth ask Him any more questions" (Matthew 22:46).
The Scribes Denounced (Mark 12:38-40).
*More commentary available at chapter level.